So, correct me if I'm wrong: A
Byzantine coin from the 1500's is 'ancient' but a coin of Charlemagne from 800AD is 'medieval'?
I once believed in 476 AD as the end of the ancient world but I was younger then. Now I'm just confused.
I pity
poor old Harun al Rashid (of 1001 Nights fame) who beat up on
Nikephoros, "the
Roman dog" (=Byzantine Emperor) and traded gifts with Charlemagne. He never knew he was in a time warp.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Harun_al-RashidLabels
work well up to middle school
history but soon after start having problems. To our kids, we are 'ancient'. My 2nd grade grandson came
home from school with a study sheet on
Egypt that defined 'ancient' as 'very old'. I'm
good with that.
Recently I read an opinion that 'medieval' hit the world in about the same time across Europe and
Asia. In
China, it started after the Wang Mang (1st century AD) fiasco that brought on 'dark ages'. In Europe, 'dark ages' held off until after Christianity replaced paganism in the 4th century. Between the two, most places went through a period of less enlightenment at one time or another where there was a downturn in 'ancient' culture before it was replaced by a different set of 'medieval' cultural norms. I've always considered the
Byzantines as more
medieval than ancient but I can see others differing on this. They built nice buildings and acted like thugs.
Giving a test on who is ancient and who is
medieval is something I would not do past elementary school. Periods were invented to provide kids something to memorize rather than to promote understanding.